Police Community Support Officer (PCSO) Exam One Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which property is explicitly excluded from the Criminal Damage Act?
• Which statement is true about consent to be a defence?
• What Force Priority do PCSO's follow most?
• What must a PCSO require from a person suspected of a crime?
• What does the 'I' in the CID acronym stand for?
• ABH under Section 47 relates to which description?
• What is the standard of proof for belief?
• Which statement is a correct requirement for consent to be a defence to assault?
• Which statement describes an essential element of burglary?
• Which description best matches Summary Offences?
• Section 3 of the Criminal Law Act 1967 permits a person to use what kind of force?
• What is the limit and test for self-defence?
• What offence is committed if someone has an offensive weapon in a public place without lawful authority or reasonable excuse?
• Which amount represents the court cost referenced alongside the non-enforceable ticket?
• Which of the following is NOT a cycling offense that a PCSO can ticket for?
• Is it possible to commit assault without the victim perceiving imminent harm?
• Which description best captures the meaning of 'recklessly' in assault?
• Which TIMID component refers to the vehicle's registration plate?
• Who approves Fixed Penalty Notices (FPNs) issued by PCSOs?
• How is 'Entry' defined in Burglary?
• Who must approve PCSO court notices (FPNs)?
• Which description best captures the concept of 'as of right' in relation to entering land?
• During the Golden Hour, why should investigators identify intelligence gaps?
• Which statement best defines a Public Place?
• When can a motor vehicle be seized under Section 59?
• A Community of Interest is defined as which?
• Which of the following could be considered a lawful excuse for Criminal Damage?
• After issuing a Section 59 warning, which actions must occur?
• What evidence-focused actions should be taken during the Golden Hour?
• Which statement best defines the Neighbourhood Policing Program?
• The Assaults on Emergency Workers Act 2018 does what?
• Which statement about caravans or boats is correct in the burglary context?
• Pocket knives are exempt from public place restrictions.
• Under Section 185, which best describes a motor vehicle?
• What vehicle offenses can a PCSO issue a ticket for?
• What does Section 6 'Intention to permanently deprive' mean?
• What is a Road?
• What is Community Policing?
• Which term describes a group whose membership is open to anyone without restriction?
• Under theft law, which option correctly defines 'Belonging to another'?
• Which symbol is used to record a caution this way in the PNB?
• Which statement is true about GBH and ABH?
• What is the fifth recordable encounter?
• What does Broken Window Syndrome describe in relation to crime and neighborhoods?
• How does community engagement affect visibility?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of community engagement?
• Which scenario would most likely be considered burglary under the described offence?
• What does S.34 Road Traffic Act 1988 prohibit?
• What type of knife is exempt from public place restrictions?
• What two elements define 'has with them' for weapon possession?
• What does Section 3 of the Criminal Damage Act 1971 address?
• What does Section 3 (Appropriation) of the Theft Act mean?
• Under Section 185 Road Traffic Act 1988, what best describes a motor vehicle?
• Can battery occur without the victim seeing it coming?
• Which statement best captures the essence of Broken Window Syndrome?
• In the assault definition, what does 'immediate' mean?
• What does 'unlawful' mean in assault?
• Which item is not included in the information required for PC handover?
• Which statement best describes a Community in this context?
• Which situation does not require a caution?
• Which TIMID component relates to the vehicle safety check?
• What is the standard of proof for a caution?
• What is the first recordable encounter for PCSOs?
• Failure to provide name and address to a PCSO when challenged is:
• Which statement about the 10-point descriptor is true?
• Which act allows seizing motor vehicles used antisocially?
• How can a caution be shorthand recorded in a PNB?
• Which statement best describes a Response Officer's role in community policing?
• Which of the following is included in Cwun's communications channels?
• Which TIMID item would be held by the license authority?
• What are the five elements of Theft under the Theft Act 1979?
• Which term describes a group not living together but united by a shared hobby or cause?
• Which description matches Indictable Only Offences?
• Which of the following is NOT a stated reason for using non-enforceable tickets?
• Which rank typically serves as the Force Incident Manager (FIM)?
• What are the first 5 elements of the 10-point descriptor?
• Who bears the burden of proof for knowledge of possession?
• A footway is best described as?
• Which recordable encounter involves PSPO enforcement?
• What is the Golden Hour in an investigation?
• When can a PCSO use reasonable force?
• Which TIMID component is checked during the safety inspection?
• Under the Criminal Damage Act 1971, what constitutes Criminal Damage to property?
• Which statement correctly defines a road for legal purposes?
• What do the radio user identifiers 2, 3, 4, 5, and 9 represent?
• In the context of assault, what does 'apprehend' mean?
• Non-private dwellings: which are included?
• Magistrates' Sentencing Limits indicate that they can issue fines and imprisonment up to?
• What does FPN stand for?
• Which option most accurately states the meaning of 'consent' as a defence?
• Burglary under Section 9(1)(a) of the Theft Act 1968?
• Where are PCSO detention powers exercisable?
• What scene-management actions should be taken during the Golden Hour?
• What is the seventh recordable encounter?
• Is dishonesty an element of theft that must be proven?
• What is an 'adapted' offensive weapon?
• Which sequence lists the first three key parts of response policing in order?
• What does the MPV acronym PAGES stand for?
• What does Section 2 of the Criminal Damage Act 1971 cover?
• What is the effect of a statement made without a caution in court?
• Which court handles Summary Offences?
• A Hidden Group is defined as which?
• Which statement about victim follow-up checks is true?
• What must you do if a witness refuses to sign their statement on your EPNB?
• What opportunity does community engagement provide to individuals?
• Which statement best defines 'driving' in law?
• Which option accurately reflects Section 3 of the Criminal Damage Act 1971?
• What is the description for S.3 Road Traffic Act 1988?
• What is NOT considered a reasonable excuse for carrying a weapon?
• Which statement describes Either Way Offences?
• Which part of the caution's wording indicates it may impact your defence?
• What is the purpose of non-enforceable tickets?
• What is the offence under Section 1 of the Prevention of Crime Act 1953?
• What is the first key part of response policing?
• What entry powers exist under Section 59?
• Which of the following best reflects the scope of defendable interests in self-defence?
• Which best describes the difference between assault and battery?
• 'Belonging to another' under Section 5 means:
• What is the difference between a footway and a footpath?
• What is the offence regarding bladed or sharply pointed articles in public?
• What is the fourth recordable encounter for PCSOs?
• Which checks must you perform before completing a ticket?
• What is the detention limit for a suspect by a PCSO?
• What is the sixth recordable encounter?
• Which item is included in the last five elements of the 10-point descriptor?
• What is the 5th key part of response policing?
• Which statement is true about environmental threats during the Golden Hour?
• Which of the following statements identifies Section 2 of the Criminal Damage Act 1971?
• Which statement best defines assault?
• What may be seized under Common Law Power of Seizure?
• Which recordable encounter involves ASB Section 35 Dispersal power?
• A bystander uses reasonable force to restrain a suspect until police arrive. This is an example of which legal concept?
• What best describes the Neighbourhood Policing Program (2005)?
• What is an 'intended' offensive weapon?
• Which TIMID component starts with the letter D?
• Which description correctly distinguishes Section 3 and Section 34 provisions?
• Transferred malice is best understood as?
• Which of the following is NOT among the first five elements of the 10-point descriptor?
• What are the last 5 elements of the 10-point descriptor?
• In the sequence of response policing steps, which activity corresponds to the final action?
• Which factor would most likely prevent issuing an FPN for a ticket offense?
• Which item is excluded from 'Property' under the Theft Act?
• What is the proper verbal formula when reporting a ticket offense?
• What does 'as of right' mean?
• What system is used to issue or find tickets?
• When is a caution NOT required?
• Which statement best describes the meaning of 'intentionally' in the context of assault?
• Which element is included in the cautions as described?
• Which is a proper example of a post-detention action?
• Which TIMID component is the license to drive?
• Which scenario best describes instant arming?
• Which TIMID component corresponds to the vehicle's tax status?
• Which section of law covers bladed or sharply pointed articles?
• What does 'by express permission' mean?
• Which location would NOT be included as a non-private dwelling under Section 59 entry?
• A Hard to Reach Community is best described as which of the following?
• Which GBH charge could apply if someone intends to cause GBH and succeeds in wounding?
• ABH may include injuries such as?
• What describes a Community Trauma?
• What is an advantage of community engagement related to relationships?
• Powers used for drones?
• Which TIMID component is associated with the 'D' in TIMID?
• What is the second recordable encounter for PCSOs?
• Which of the following describes the status required to exercise detention powers?
• When is a warning not required before a Section 59 seizure?
• Fixed penalty notices can be served in which ways?
• What does TIMID stand for in motor vehicle terminology?
• What does the 'C' in the CID acronym stand for?
• GBH under the Offences against the Person Act 1861 refers to the severest forms of battery, covered by which sections?
• In encounters, what does the G in GOWISELY stand for?
• Which of the following is included in Cwun's communications channels?
• When were fixed penalty notices introduced and what are they used for?
• What is the status of statements made without a caution?
• What does Cwun stand for and what is its role?
• PAW stands for?
• Which scenario best illustrates the 'recklessly' standard in assault?
• Who is a trespasser?
• Why do PCSOs use non-enforceable tickets instead of court prosecution?
• Which description matches an 'intended' offensive weapon?
• Which two environmental threats to evidence occur during the Golden Hour?
• Which statement about PCSO duties is most accurate?
• What best describes a neighbourhood?
• What is the 4th key part of response policing?
• Under Section 2, when is someone NOT considered dishonest?
• Which statement best describes the difference between destroying and damaging?
• What is the second key part of response policing?
• What does 'by implied permission' mean?
• What Force Priority Do PCSO's Follow Second-most?
• Section 59 powers are triggered when driving causes which of the following?
• Which statement best describes the use of reasonable force?
• Under the concept of 'Belonging to another', which scenario demonstrates a proprietary right?
• What cycling offenses can a PCSO issue a ticket for?
• Under PACE, what is the primary purpose?
• Which option is explicitly listed as an exemption from receiving an FPN?
• The 2015 Police Funding Cuts reduced funding by which amount?
• What is a 'made' offensive weapon?
• What information is required for PC handover?
• What triggers Section 59 powers?
• Which of the following constitutes a reasonable excuse for carrying an offensive weapon?
• Which term in GOWISELY is associated with law and rules?
• Who is the Force Incident Manager (FIM)?
• Which TIMID component would verify the vehicle has paid its road tax?
• What is the purpose of starting a log during the Golden Hour?
• What happens if a police radio is lost?
• What Force Priority do PCSO's follow least?
• What does community engagement provide to individuals?
• What should you do if a suspect has multiple FPN records on PENTIP?
• In burglary definitions, which description best identifies a 'Building' for the offense?
• What is the third recordable encounter for PCSOs?
• Which of the following is NOT part of the GOWISELY acronym?
• Why were PCSO's introduced?
• What details do you provide Cwun during a radio query?
• Which scenario best describes assault?
• What distinguishes Section 18 GBH from Section 20 GBH?
• Which outcome best describes increased presence of PCSOs in a community?
• Which of the following is a Public Place?
• An offensive weapon is defined as what?
• Why Do PCSO's Typically Do Follow Up Checks?
• Which of the following are the key aims of Community Policing?
• Who or what may you defend under self-defence?
• Which term indicates you are detained in GOWISELY?
• What prefix is always used at the start of a Point to Point radio call?
• Indictable Only Offences must be heard at which court?
• Which TIMID component represents the letter T in the acronym TIMID?
• Which TIMID component would insurers typically require as proof?
• Burglary under Section 9(1)(b) of the Theft Act 1968 involves entering with intent to commit what after entry?
• Which term describes a group that public services struggle to reach due to demographics or culture?
• Which act contains the provision addressing racially or religiously motivated criminal damage?
• Which statement correctly identifies the 'adapted' offensive weapon?
• Which of the following describes the grounds for a post-detention search?
• The 2015 Police Funding Cuts are characterized by which description?
• What is the 3rd key part of response policing?
• Which statement best describes the aim of PCSO introduction?
• Which courts can handle Either Way Offences?
• Which offences relate to PCSO detention?
• Which option correctly completes the ABC acronym used in PCSO practice?
• Which statement is true regarding Section 59 seizure after a prior warning?
• Which part of GOWISELY represents official proof of authority?
• What does the 'D' in the CID acronym stand for?
• What people-focused actions should be taken during the Golden Hour?
• Which statement correctly describes MPV classifications exclusions?
• Which statement about the limits of self-defence is true?
• What is the fine for a PCSO non-enforceable ticket?
• Which of the following statements is true about MPV exclusions?
• An Open Community is best described as?
• What is the wording of the caution?
• Which property is explicitly excluded from the Criminal Damage Act?
• Which TIMID component indicates financial responsibility?
• What is 'instant arming' as a reasonable excuse?
• Which option describes an effect of community engagement on local policing visibility?
• Can police question a suspect further after reporting them?
• What items are generally excluded from 'Property' under the Theft Act?
• Which option defines assault as per the material?